Question 91
The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as:
Answer: (2) Succinate dehydrogenase
Explanation:
Complex II of the electron transport chain is succinate dehydrogenase
It is the only enzyme that participates in both the TCA cycle and the ETC
Complex I: NADH dehydrogenase
Complex III: Cytochrome bc₁
Complex IV: Cytochrome c oxidase
Question 92
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation:
Answer: (2) 2ⁿ
Explanation:
In PCR, DNA amplification occurs exponentially
Each cycle doubles the number of DNA molecules
Starting from one molecule: after n cycles, number of molecules = 2ⁿ
Question 93
Potential drawbacks in adoption of IVF method:
Answer: (1) B, D, F only
Explanation:
B. Expensive instruments and reagents ✓ (High cost involved)
D. Less adoption of orphans ✓ (IVF reduces the need for adoption)
F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive ✓ (Not all embryos survive)
A. High fatality risk to mother ✗ (Not a typical IVF drawback)
C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors ✗ (Donors can be used)
E. Not available in India ✗ (IVF is available in India)
Question 94
Blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog:
Answer: (4) Vena cava
Explanation:
Vena cava carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart (right auricle)
Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs
Pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart
Aorta carries oxygenated blood from heart to body
Question 95
Which statement refers to Reductionist Biology?
Answer: (1) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms
Explanation:
Reductionist biology breaks down complex biological systems into their physical and chemical components
It studies living organisms using physics and chemistry principles
The other options focus on specific approaches but not the reductionist philosophy
Question 96
Statements about RNA and DNA as genetic material:
Answer: (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: RNA is considered the first genetic material; it can act as genetic material and as catalyst (ribozymes); RNA is reactive and unstable
Statement II is correct: DNA evolved from RNA; DNA is more stable due to its double-stranded structure and repair mechanisms
Question 97
Epiphytes growing on a mango branch is an example of:
Answer: (1) Commensalism
Explanation:
Epiphytes grow on trees for support (physical space)
The tree is neither harmed nor benefited
The epiphyte benefits by getting access to sunlight and nutrients from air/rain
This is an example of commensalism (+/0 interaction)
Question 98
Correct statements about ribosomes:
Answer: (1) A, B, C are true
Explanation:
A is correct: Eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S; Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S
B is correct: Each ribosome has two subunits
C is correct: 80S has 60S + 40S subunits; 70S has 50S + 30S subunits
D and E are incorrect (wrong subunit sizes)
Question 99
Example of ex-situ conservation:
Answer: (3) Zoos and botanical gardens
Explanation:
Ex-situ conservation: Conservation of species outside their natural habitats
Examples: Zoos, botanical gardens, seed banks, gene banks
National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, and Protected Areas are in-situ conservation
Question 100
Statements about energy and productivity:
Answer: (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: Solar energy is the primary source of energy in ecosystems
Statement II is incorrect: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is called Gross Primary Productivity (GPP), not Net Primary Productivity (NPP)
NPP = GPP – Respiration losses
Question 101
Match List-I with List-II:
Answer: (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Question 102
Assertion and Reason about wind/water pollinated flowers:
Answer: (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: Wind and water pollinated flowers are not colourful and do not produce nectar
Reason (R) is true: They produce enormous amounts of pollen grains
R correctly explains A because the energy saved from not producing nectar/color is used for pollen production
Question 103
Non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast:
Answer: (3) Beer
Explanation:
Beer is a non-distilled alcoholic beverage (produced by fermentation)
Whisky, Brandy, and Rum are distilled alcoholic beverages
Beer is made from barley, hops, and water with yeast fermentation
Question 104
Statements about floral formula symbols:
Answer: (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Explanation:
⊕ stands for actinomorphic flower (radial symmetry), not zygomorphic
Zygomorphic flower is represented by %
G with a line below = superior ovary; G with a line above = inferior ovary
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
Question 105
Streptokinase produced by Streptococcus is used for:
Answer: (4) Removing clots from blood vessels
Explanation:
Streptokinase is an enzyme produced by Streptococcus bacteria
It acts as a fibrinolytic agent (clot buster)
Used to dissolve blood clots in conditions like myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism
Question 106
Chromosome in human genome with highest number of genes:
Answer: (3) Chromosome 1
Explanation:
Chromosome 1 is the largest human chromosome
It contains the highest number of genes (~2,000-3,000 genes)
Chromosome X has ~1,000 genes
Chromosome Y has ~70 genes
Chromosome 10 has ~800 genes
Question 107
Location of male frog copulatory pad:
Answer: (4) First digit of the fore limb
Explanation:
In male frogs, the copulatory pad is present on the first digit of the fore limb
This helps the male to grip the female during amplexus (mating)
It is a secondary sexual characteristic in male frogs
Question 108
Phytohormone that promotes nutrient mobilization and delays leaf senescence:
Answer: (4) Cytokinin
Explanation:
Cytokinins promote nutrient mobilization
They delay leaf senescence (aging) by mobilizing nutrients to young tissues
Ethylene promotes senescence
ABA promotes senescence and stress responses
Gibberellins promote stem elongation
Question 109
Type of coelom with mesoderm towards body wall but not towards alimentary canal:
Answer: (2) Pseudocoelomate
Explanation:
In pseudocoelomates, mesoderm is present on the body wall side but absent around the alimentary canal
The body cavity is lined by mesoderm only externally
Acoelomates: No body cavity
Schizocoelomates: True coelomates (mesoderm on both sides)
Spongocoelomate: Not a valid term
Question 110
Match sperm parts with functions:
Answer: (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Question 111
Correct sequence in pteridophyte life cycle:
Answer: (1) B, A, D, E, C
Explanation:
B. Meiosis in spore mother cells → Produces haploid spores
A. Prothallus stage → Haploid gametophyte develops
D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia → Sex organs develop
E. Transfer of antherozoids → Water required for fertilization
C. Fertilization → Fusion of gametes
Question 112
Regulation of cardiac activities:
Answer: (1) A, B and C Only
Explanation:
A. Nodal tissue ✓ (SA node, AV node – intrinsic regulation)
B. Medulla oblongata ✓ (Autonomic neural center)
C. Adrenal medullary hormones ✓ (Epinephrine and norepinephrine)
D. Adrenal cortical hormones ✗ (Not directly involved in cardiac regulation)
Question 113
Organisms that cannot fix nitrogen:
Answer: (2) D only
Explanation:
A. Azotobacter ✓ (Free-living nitrogen fixer)
B. Oscillatoria ✓ (Cyanobacterium, nitrogen fixer)
C. Anabaena ✓ (Cyanobacterium, nitrogen fixer)
D. Volvox ✗ (Green alga, cannot fix nitrogen)
E. Nostoc ✓ (Cyanobacterium, nitrogen fixer)
Question 114
Statements about RNA and RNAi:
Answer: (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect: tRNA and rRNA DO interact with mRNA during translation (tRNA brings amino acids; rRNA is part of ribosome that reads mRNA)
Statement II is correct: RNA interference (RNAi) occurs in all eukaryotes as a cellular defense mechanism
Question 115
Selection of recombinant colonies with plasmid insert at EcoRI site:
Answer: (3) White color colonies will be selected
Explanation:
This is the blue-white screening method
The plasmid has a lacZ gene (produces β-galactosidase)
When a DNA insert is at the EcoRI site (within lacZ gene), lacZ is disrupted
Disrupted lacZ → no blue color → white colonies are recombinant
Intact lacZ → blue colonies → non-recombinant
Question 116
Genetically engineered organism used by Eli Lilly for human insulin:
Answer: (1) Bacterium
Explanation:
Eli Lilly used bacteria (E. coli) to produce human insulin
The human insulin gene was inserted into E. coli via recombinant DNA technology
This was the first commercially available recombinant human insulin (Humulin)
Question 117
Class of enzyme that catalyzes S-G + S’ → S + S’-G:
Answer: (3) Transferase
Explanation:
The reaction involves transferring a group (G) from one substrate to another
Transferases catalyze the transfer of a functional group from one molecule to another
Hydrolase: Hydrolysis reactions
Lyase: Addition/removal of groups without hydrolysis
Ligase: Joining of molecules
Question 118
Statement NOT correct about monocot stem structure:
Answer: (1) Hypodermis is parenchymatous
Explanation:
In monocot stems, the hypodermis is sclerenchymatous (not parenchymatous)
Other statements are correct:
Vascular bundles are scattered ✓
Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed ✓
Phloem parenchyma is absent ✓
Question 119
Correct sequence in bryophyte life cycle:
Answer: (3) B, E, A, D, C
Explanation:
B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum (Start with gametophyte)
E. Release of anterozoids into water (For fertilization)
A. Fusion of anterozoid with egg (Fertilization)
D. Formation of sporophyte (After fertilization)
C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores (Meiosis in sporophyte)
Question 120
Correct statements about cancer detection and treatment:
Answer: (4) A and C only
Explanation:
A is correct: CT scan and MRI detect cancers of internal organs
C is correct: α-interferon activates the immune system and helps destroy tumors
B is incorrect: Chemotherapeutic drugs kill cancerous cells, not noncancerous cells
D is incorrect: Biological response modifiers are NOT chemotherapeutic drugs
E is incorrect: In leukemia, blood cell counts are increased (abnormal proliferation)
Question 121
Match List-I with List-II:
Answer: (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Question 122
Match pigments with their colors:
Answer: (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Question 123
Correct statements about human pregnancy:
Answer: (3) B, C, D and E Only
Explanation:
B is correct: Major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks (embryonic period)
C is correct: Heart is formed after one month of gestation
D is correct: Limbs and digits develop by the end of the second month
E is correct: Appearance of hair is observed in the fifth month
A is incorrect: Major organ systems are NOT formed at 12 weeks (they are formed at 8 weeks)
Question 124
Protein-rich outer covering of endosperm in cereal seeds:
Answer: (4) Aleurone layer
Explanation:
The aleurone layer is the protein-rich outer layer of the endosperm
It separates the embryo from the starchy endosperm
Coleoptile: Protective sheath covering the shoot
Coleorhiza: Protective sheath covering the root
Integument: Seed coat
Question 125
This question refers to a diagram and is not fully visible in the text version
Question 126
Part of bioreactor used as foam broker:
Answer: (3) D
Explanation:
Foam is produced during fermentation due to proteins and gases
The foam breaker is used to break the foam
It helps prevent contamination and loss of culture
In the diagram, option D represents the foam breaker
Question 127
Assertion and Reason about angiosperm embryo sac:
Answer: (3) A is true but R is false
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: Mature angiosperm embryo sac is 8-nucleate and 7-celled
Reason (R) is false: The egg apparatus has 2 cells (egg cell + 2 synergids) + 3 antipodal cells + 2 polar nuclei = 7 cells, 8 nuclei
The polar nuclei are in the central cell, not in the egg apparatus
Question 128
Specialized membranous structure in prokaryotic cells:
Answer: (1) Mesosome
Explanation:
Mesosomes are specialized infoldings of the plasma membrane in prokaryotes
Functions:
Cell wall formation
DNA replication
Respiration
Increase surface area
Chromatophores: Pigment-containing structures in photosynthetic bacteria
Cristae: Inner membrane folds of mitochondria (not in prokaryotes)
ER: Not present in prokaryotes
Question 129
Post-transcriptional events in eukaryotic cell:
Answer: (2) B, C, D only
Explanation:
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons ✓ (Splicing)
C. Addition of methyl group at 5′ end ✓ (5′ capping)
D. Addition of adenine residues at 3′ end ✓ (Polyadenylation)
A is incorrect: Pre-mRNA is spliced in the nucleus before transport to cytoplasm
E is incorrect: Base pairing of complementary RNAs is not a post-transcriptional modification
Question 130
Pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait:
Answer: (2) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
Explanation:
Polygenic traits are controlled by multiple genes
They show continuous variation (e.g., height, skin color)
They do NOT follow Mendelian inheritance patterns
Mendelian traits show discrete/discontinuous variation
Question 131
Enzyme that contains ‘Haem’ as prosthetic group:
Answer: (4) Catalase
Explanation:
Catalase contains haem as its prosthetic group
Catalase breaks down hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) to water and oxygen
RuBisCO: Has no haem group
Carbonic anhydrase: Has zinc as cofactor
Succinate dehydrogenase: Has FAD as prosthetic group
Question 132
Increasing order of complexity of body organization (Whittaker’s classification):
Answer: (2) C, E, A, D, B
Explanation:
C. Prokaryotes (Monera) – Most simple (cellular level)
E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization (Protista) – Cellular level
A. Multicellular heterotrophs with chitin cell wall (Fungi) – Tissue level
D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level (Plantae) – Tissue/Organ level
B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level (Animalia) – Most complex
Question 133
Father of Ecology in India:
Answer: (2) Ramdeo Misra
Explanation:
Ramdeo Misra is known as the father of Ecology in India
He was a pioneer in ecological studies in India
S.R. Kashyap: Father of Indian Bryology
Birbal Sahni: Father of Indian Paleobotany
Question 134
Match List-I with List-II:
Answer: (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-III → A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Question 135
Neoplastic characteristics of cells:
Answer: (2) A, B, C only
Explanation:
A. A mass of proliferating cell ✓ (Tumor formation)
B. Rapid growth of cells ✓ (Uncontrolled division)
C. Invasion and damage to surrounding tissue ✓ (Malignant characteristics)
D. Those confined to original location ✗ (This describes benign tumors, not neoplastic characteristics)
Question 136
Statements about DNA fragments and gel electrophoresis:
Answer: (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used for recombinant DNA construction
Statement II is correct: In agarose gel electrophoresis, smaller fragments move faster and are found near the anode (+), while larger fragments remain near the wells
Question 137
Match List-I with List-II:
Answer: (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Question 138
Correct statements about gametogenesis:
Answer: (1) A and B are true
Explanation:
A is true: Reductive division (meiosis) for female gametogenesis starts earlier (in fetal life) than male gametogenesis (at puberty)
B is true: The gap between first and second meiotic division is much shorter in males than females
C is false: First polar body is associated with secondary oocyte, not primary oocyte
D is false: LH surge leads to ovulation, not disintegration of endometrium
Question 139
All living members of class Cyclostomata are:
Answer: (4) Ectoparasite
Explanation:
Cyclostomata (e.g., lampreys, hagfish) are ectoparasites
They attach to other fish and feed on their blood/tissues
They are not free-living, endoparasites, or symbiotic
Question 140
Assertion and Reason about Golgi apparatus:
Answer: (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: Primary function of Golgi is packaging and delivering materials from ER
Reason (R) is true: Vesicles from ER fuse with cis face; modified materials are released from trans face
R correctly explains the mechanism of how Golgi carries out its packaging function
Question 141
Match List-I with List-II:
Answer: (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Question 142
Assertion and Reason about chordates and vertebrates:
Answer: (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: All vertebrates are chordates, but not all chordates are vertebrates (e.g., Urochordata, Cephalochordata)
Reason (R) is true: In vertebrates, notochord is replaced by vertebral column in adults
R correctly explains why vertebrates are a subset of chordates
Question 143
Statement that is NOT correct about antibodies:
Answer: (3) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules
Explanation:
A is correct: Each antibody has 2 light and 2 heavy chains
B is correct: Heavy and light chains are held by disulfide bonds
C is incorrect: Antigen binding site is at the N-terminal region (variable region), not C-terminal
D is correct: Constant region of heavy and light chains are at the C-terminus
Question 144
Silencing of specific mRNA via RNAi is possible because of:
Answer: (1) Complementary dsRNA
Explanation:
RNA interference (RNAi) uses complementary double-stranded RNA (dsRNA)
The dsRNA is processed into siRNA (21-23 nucleotides)
siRNA binds to complementary mRNA and causes its degradation
This silences the specific gene
Question 145
Phenotypic ratio of F2 generation from RRYY × rryy:
Answer: (3) Phenotypic ratio-9:3:3:1
Explanation:
RRYY (round, yellow) × rryy (wrinkled, green)
This is a dihybrid cross
R and Y show independent assortment
F2 phenotypic ratio = 9:3:3:1
9: Round Yellow
3: Round Green
3: Wrinkled Yellow
1: Wrinkled Green
Question 146
Histones are enriched with:
Answer: (1) Lysine & Arginine
Explanation:
Histones are basic proteins
They are rich in positively charged amino acids: Lysine and Arginine
This positive charge helps them bind to negatively charged DNA
This forms nucleosomes (DNA wrapped around histone octamers)
Question 147
First menstruation is called:
Answer: (2) Menarche
Explanation:
Menarche: The first menstrual period (occurs at puberty, ~10-15 years)
Menopause: Cessation of menstruation (~45-50 years)
Diapause: Temporary pause in development (in insects)
Ovulation: Release of egg from ovary
Question 148
Match List-I with List-II:
Answer: (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Question 149
Protein portion of an enzyme is called:
Answer: (3) Apoenzyme
Explanation:
Apoenzyme: The protein (inactive) portion of an enzyme
Cofactor: Non-protein component (metal ions, organic molecules)
Coenzyme: Organic cofactor (e.g., vitamins)
Prosthetic group: Tightly bound cofactor
Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Cofactor
