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NEET UGC Biology Question Paper for 2024

Biology Solve  Questions Paper 2024

With one of the highest numbers of candidates registered for the NEET 2024 exam, the NEET exam previous year question paper 2024 serves as an essential reference for the medical entrance exams’ current competitive nature.

BOTANY SECTION-A

Question 1

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. RhizopusI. Mushroom
B. UstilagoII. Smut fungus
C. PucciniaIII. Bread mould
D. AgaricusIV. Rust fungus

Answer: (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Explanation:

  • Rhizopus is a bread mould fungus (commonly seen on bread)

  • Ustilago causes smut disease in plants (smut fungi)

  • Puccinia causes rust disease in plants (rust fungi)

  • Agaricus is commonly called mushroom


Question 2

Identify the part of the seed destined to form root when the seed germinates:

Answer: (3) C (Radicle)

Explanation:

  • The radicle is the embryonic root of the plant

  • During seed germination, the radicle emerges first and develops into the root system

  • In the diagram, ‘C’ represents the radicle


Question 3

Lecithin, a small molecular weight organic compound found in living tissues, is an example of:

Answer: (2) Phospholipids

Explanation:

  • Lecithin is a phospholipid (contains phosphorus and a phosphorylated organic compound)

  • Found in cell membranes

  • Glycerides contain glycerol and fatty acids only

  • Amino acids and carbohydrates are separate biomolecule classes


Question 4

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. Two or more alternative forms of a geneI. Back cross
B. Cross of F1 progeny with homozygous recessive parentII. Ploidy
C. Cross of F1 progeny with any of the parentsIII. Alleles
D. Number of chromosome sets in plantIV. Test cross

Answer: (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Explanation:

  • Alleles = Two or more alternative forms of a gene

  • Test cross = Cross of F1 progeny with homozygous recessive parent

  • Back cross = Cross of F1 progeny with any of the parents

  • Ploidy = Number of chromosome sets in plant


Question 5

A transcription unit of DNA is defined primarily by:

Answer: (4) Promoter, Structural gene, Terminator

Explanation:
A transcription unit has three regions in DNA:

  1. Promoter – located towards 5′-end (upstream) of structural gene

  2. Structural gene – the coding region

  3. Terminator – located towards 3′-end (downstream) of coding strand


Question 6

Auxin does not affect mature monocot plants because:

Answer: (3) does not affect mature monocotyledonous plants

Explanation:

  • Auxin does not affect mature monocot plants

  • In monocots (especially grasses), there is limited translocation of auxin

  • Rapid degradation of external auxin occurs in monocots


Question 7

Major causes of biodiversity loss:

Answer: (4) A, B and D only

Explanation:
Major causes of biodiversity loss:

  1. Habitat loss and fragmentation (largest cause)

  2. Over-exploitation

  3. Alien species invasions

  4. Co-extinctions

Mutation and migration are natural processes, not major causes of biodiversity loss.


Question 8

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. Clostridium butylicumI. Ethanol
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiaeII. Streptokinase
C. Trichoderma polysporumIII. Butyric acid
D. Streptococcus sp.IV. Cyclosporin-A

Answer: (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Explanation:

  • Clostridium butylicum → Butyric acid

  • Saccharomyces cerevisiae → Ethanol (fermentation)

  • Trichoderma polysporum → Cyclosporin-A (immunosuppressant)

  • Streptococcus sp. → Streptokinase (clot buster)


Question 9

Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during:

Answer: (2) Metaphase

Explanation:

  • Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores of chromosomes during metaphase

  • This attachment ensures proper chromosome alignment at the metaphase plate

  • Prophase: Chromosomes condense

  • Anaphase: Sister chromatids separate

  • Telophase: Chromosomes decondense


Question 10

Example of actinomorphic flower:

Answer: (1) Datura

Explanation:

  • Actinomorphic flower: Radially symmetrical (can be divided into equal halves in any plane)

  • Datura shows actinomorphic flowers

  • Cassia, Pisum, and Sesbania show zygomorphic flowers (bilateral symmetry)


Question 11

Cofactor of the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:

Answer: (1) Zinc

Explanation:

  • Carboxypeptidase requires zinc (Zn²⁺) as its cofactor

  • Niacin is associated with coenzymes NAD and NADP

  • Haem is the prosthetic group in peroxidase and catalase

  • Flavin is associated with FAD/FMN


Question 12

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. NucleolusI. Site of formation of glycolipid
B. CentrioleII. Organization like the cartwheel
C. LeucoplastsIII. Site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis
D. Golgi apparatusIV. For storing nutrients

Answer: (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Explanation:

  • Nucleolus → Site of active ribosomal RNA synthesis

  • Centriole → Cartwheel-like organization (centrioles lie perpendicular to each other)

  • Leucoplasts → Colorless plastids for storing nutrients

  • Golgi apparatus → Site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids


Question 13

Capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell:

Answer: (1) Totipotency

Explanation:

  • Totipotency is the capacity of a single cell to generate a whole plant

  • This property is used in plant tissue culture and micropropagation

  • Differentiation: Process of cells becoming specialized

  • Somatic hybridization: Fusion of protoplasts from different plants


Question 14

Hind II recognition sequence consists of:

Answer: (2) 6 bp

Explanation:

  • Hind II was the first restriction endonuclease isolated

  • It recognizes and cuts at a specific sequence of 6 base pairs

  • This is a palindromic sequence

  • Other restriction enzymes may recognize 4, 6, or 8 bp sequences


Question 15

Set of correct statements about water pollination:

Answer: (4) B, C, D and E only

Explanation:

  • A is incorrect: Flowers of Vallisneria are NOT colourful and do NOT produce nectar

  • B is correct: Water lily flowers are pollinated by insects/wind, not water

  • C is correct: Pollen grains of water-pollinated species are protected from wetting by mucilaginous covering

  • D is correct: Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon-like

  • E is correct: In some hydrophytes, pollen grains are carried passively by water currents


Question 16

Statements about parenchyma, collenchyma, and gymnosperms:

Answer: (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation:

  • Statement I is false: Both parenchyma AND collenchyma are living tissues

  • Statement II is true: Gymnosperms lack xylem vessels (have tracheids only), while xylem vessels are characteristic of angiosperms


Question 17

Formation of interfascicular cambium from parenchyma cells is:

Answer: (3) Dedifferentiation

Explanation:

  • Dedifferentiation: Process where differentiated cells regain the capacity to divide

  • Fully differentiated parenchyma cells dedifferentiate to form interfascicular cambium

  • Differentiation: Cells become specialized

  • Redifferentiation: Dedifferentiated cells mature into specific cell types

  • Maturation: Final stage of cell development


Question 18

Malonate inhibits succinic dehydrogenase due to:

Answer: (3) Competitive inhibition

Explanation:

  • Malonate has close structural similarity to succinate (the substrate)

  • It competes with succinate for the active site of succinic dehydrogenase

  • This is a classic example of competitive inhibition

  • Feedback inhibition: End product inhibits its own synthesis

  • Cofactor inhibition: Not applicable here


Question 19

Identify flower types based on ovary position:

Answer: (4) (a) Perigynous; (b) Perigynous

Explanation:

  • Perigynous flower: Gynoecium in the center, other parts on the rim of thalamus at the same level

  • Both diagrams (a) and (b) show perigynous condition

  • Hypogynous: Ovary superior (above other parts)

  • Epigynous: Ovary inferior (below other parts)

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Question 20

To determine genotype of black seed plant (BB/Bb), cross with:

Answer: (2) bb

Explanation:

  • This is a test cross to determine if the black seed plant is homozygous (BB) or heterozygous (Bb)

  • Cross the black seed plant (unknown genotype) with white seed plant (bb – recessive)

  • If all offspring are black → Parent is BB

  • If 50% black and 50% white → Parent is Bb


Question 21

Reasons for greatest species richness in tropical regions:

Answer: (1) A, C, D and E only

Explanation:

  • A is correct: Tropical latitudes remain relatively undisturbed, allowing more time for diversification

  • B is incorrect: Tropical environments are less seasonal (not more)

  • C is correct: More solar energy is available in tropics

  • D is correct: Constant environments promote niche specialization

  • E is correct: Tropical environments are constant and predictable


Question 22

In Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth equation, K indicates:

Answer: (3) Carrying capacity

Explanation:

  • Logistic growth equation: dN/dt = rN[(K-N)/K]

  • K = Carrying capacity (maximum population size environment can support)

  • r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase

  • N = Population density


Question 23

Component with thin outer walls and highly thickened inner walls:

Answer: (1) C (Guard cells)

Explanation:

  • Guard cells of stomata have thin outer walls and thick inner walls

  • This differential thickening helps in the opening and closing of stomata

  • The thin outer wall stretches easily, while the thick inner wall is more rigid


Question 24

Statements about leptotene and diplotene stages:

Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Explanation:

  • Statement I correct: Chromosomes gradually become visible under light microscope during leptotene stage

  • Statement II correct: Beginning of diplotene is recognized by dissolution of synaptonemal complex

  • During diplotene, homologous chromosomes separate except at chiasmata sites


Question 25

List of endangered species released by:

Answer: (4) IUCN

Explanation:

  • IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) releases the Red List of endangered species

  • GEAC: Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee

  • WWF: World Wide Fund for Nature

  • FOAM: Not a relevant organization


Question 26

Requirements for dark reaction of photosynthesis:

Answer: (3) C, D and E only

Explanation:

  • Dark reaction (Calvin cycle) requires:

    • C. CO₂ (carbon source)

    • D. ATP (energy source)

    • E. NADPH (reducing power)

  • A. Light: Not required for dark reaction (though needed for light reaction)

  • B. Chlorophyll: Not directly required (pigments are for light absorption)


Question 27

Type of conservation where threatened species are taken out of natural habitat:

Answer: (2) Biodiversity conservation (Ex-situ conservation)

Explanation:

  • Ex-situ conservation: Species are taken from natural habitat and placed in special settings (zoos, botanical gardens, seed banks, etc.)

  • In-situ conservation: Species protected in their natural habitat (national parks, sanctuaries)

  • The question’s answer options seem to have a typo – it should be “Ex-situ conservation”


Question 28

Fate of DNA carrying gene of interest transferred into alien organism:

Answer: (3) B and C only

Explanation:

  • The DNA piece alone cannot multiply independently (A and E are incorrect)

  • B is correct: It may get integrated into the recipient genome

  • C is correct: It may multiply and be inherited along with host DNA

  • D is partially true but not one of the main fates


Question 29

Lactose is transported into bacteria by:

Answer: (3) Permease

Explanation:

  • The y gene of lac operon codes for permease

  • Permease increases permeability of cell to β-galactosides (including lactose)

  • Beta-galactosidase: Breaks lactose into glucose and galactose

  • Acetylase: Involved in transacetylation

  • Polymerase: Involved in DNA replication/transcription


Question 30

Mendel’s Law of Dominance – correct statements:

Answer: (2) A, C, D and E only

Explanation:

  • A is correct: One factor is dominant, the other is recessive

  • B is incorrect: This describes Law of Segregation, not Law of Dominance

  • C is correct: Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants

  • D is correct: Discrete unit controlling a character is called a factor (gene)

  • E is correct: Only one parental character is expressed in monohybrid cross (dominant trait)


Question 31

Not a criterion for classification of fungi:

Answer: (2) Mode of nutrition

Explanation:

  • Basis for classification of fungi:

    1. Morphology of mycelium

    2. Mode of spore formation

    3. Fruiting body

  • Mode of nutrition is NOT used as a criterion (all fungi are heterotrophic)


Question 32

Statements about Bt toxins:

Answer: (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation:

  • Statement I is correct: Bt toxins are insect-group specific and coded by cry genes (cry IAc, cry IIAb, etc.)

  • Statement II is false: Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin, but after ingestion, it gets converted to active form due to alkaline pH of insect gut (not acidic)


Question 33

Bulliform cells in grasses cause:

Answer: (1) Inward curling of leaves in monocots

Explanation:

  • Bulliform cells are large, empty, colorless cells in grass leaves

  • When turgid: Leaves are exposed (water available)

  • When flaccid (water stress): Leaves curl inward to minimize water loss

  • This is an adaptation for water conservation


Question 34

Cross between pink and red flowered Snapdragon:

Answer: (2) Red flowered as well as pink flowered plants

Explanation:

  • Snapdragon shows incomplete dominance

  • Pink flower = Rr (heterozygous)

  • Red flower = RR (homozygous dominant)

  • Cross: RR × Rr

 
 
 RR
RRR (Red)RR (Red)
rRr (Pink)Rr (Pink)
  • Ratio: 2 Red : 2 Pink (50% each)

  • No white flowers (rr) produced


Question 35

ATP and NADPH required for CO₂ fixation in Calvin cycle:

Answer: (4) 3 molecules of ATP and 2 molecules of NADPH

Explanation:

  • For every 1 molecule of CO₂ fixed in Calvin cycle:

    • 3 ATP molecules required

    • 2 NADPH molecules required

  • These are consumed in the reduction phase of the Calvin cycle


Question 36

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. Robert MayI. Rivet popper hypothesis
B. Alexander von HumboldtII. Species-area relationship
C. Paul EhrlichIII. Global species diversity (~7 million)
D. David TilmanIV. Long term ecosystem experiments

Answer: (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Explanation:

  • Robert May: Placed global species diversity at about 7 million

  • Alexander von Humboldt: Gave species-area relationship

  • Paul Ehrlich: Rivet popper hypothesis (role of species in ecosystem)

  • David Tilman: Long-term ecosystem experiments using outdoor plots


Question 37

Diagram shows a wind-pollinated plant with:

Answer: (1) Wind pollinated plant inflorescence showing flowers with well exposed stamens

Explanation:

  • Wind-pollinated flowers have well-exposed stamens for easy pollen dispersal

  • Compact inflorescence is shown

  • Stamens are exposed, so complete autogamy does NOT occur


Question 38

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. Frederick GriffithI. Genetic code
B. Francois Jacob & Jacques MonodII. Semi-conservative mode of DNA replication
C. Har Gobind KhoranaIII. Transformation
D. Meselson & StahlIV. Lac operon

Answer: (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Explanation:

  • Frederick Griffith: Transformation experiment (1918)

  • Francois Jacob & Jacques Monod: Lac operon model

  • Har Gobind Khorana: Developed chemical method for genetic code determination

  • Meselson & Stahl: Semi-conservative DNA replication (1958)


Question 39

Spraying sugarcane with which PGR increases stem length:

Answer: (2) Gibberellin

Explanation:

  • Gibberellins increase stem elongation

  • Sugarcane stores sugar in stems; spraying gibberellins increases stem length → increases yield

  • Auxin: Promotes root growth, apical dominance

  • Cytokinin: Promotes cell division

  • Abscisic acid: Stress hormone, promotes dormancy


Question 40

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. RoseI. Twisted aestivation
B. PeaII. Perigynous flower
C. CottonIII. Drupe
D. MangoIV. Marginal placentation

Answer: (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Explanation:

  • Rose: Perigynous flower (half-inferior ovary)

  • Pea: Marginal placentation (ovules borne on ridge along ventral suture)

  • Cotton: Twisted aestivation

  • Mango: Drupe fruit

 

Section

Number of Questions

Marks for Correct Answer

Negative Marking

Total Marks

Physics

45

+4

−1

180

Chemistry

45

+4

−1

180

Biology (Botany + Zoology)

90

+4

−1

360

Total

180

  

720

Question 41

Correct statements about Phaeophyceae:

Answer: (3) A, C, D and E only

Explanation:

  • A is correct: Asexual reproduction by biflagellate zoospores

  • B is incorrect: Sexual reproduction can be oogamous, isogamous, or anisogamous

  • C is correct: Stored food is mannitol or laminarin

  • D is correct: Major pigments: chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids, xanthophylls

  • E is correct: Cellulosic wall covered by gelatinous coating of algin


Question 42

Step in TCA cycle that does NOT involve oxidation:

Answer: (3) Succinyl-CoA → Succinic acid

Explanation:

  • Oxidation involves loss of electrons (increase in oxidation state)

  • Succinyl-CoA → Succinic acid is a hydrolysis reaction (no oxidation)

  • All other options involve oxidation:

    • Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid (oxidation)

    • Succinic acid → Malic acid (oxidation)

    • Isocitrate → α-ketoglutaric acid (oxidation)


Question 43

Statements about C3 and C4 plants:

Answer: (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation:

  • Statement I is correct: In C3 plants, O₂ competes with CO₂ at RuBisCO (photorespiration), decreasing CO₂ fixation

  • Statement II is false: Photorespiration does NOT occur in C4 plants (they lack RuBisCO in mesophyll cells)


Question 44

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. GLUT-4I. Hormone
B. InsulinII. Enzyme
C. TrypsinIII. Intercellular ground substance
D. CollagenIV. Enables glucose transport into cells

Answer: (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Explanation:

  • GLUT-4: Enables glucose transport into cells (glucose transporter)

  • Insulin: Hormone (regulates blood glucose)

  • Trypsin: Enzyme (digests proteins)

  • Collagen: Intercellular ground substance (structural protein)


Question 45

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. MonoadelphousI. Citrus
B. DiadelphousII. Pea
C. PolyadelphousIII. Lily
D. EpiphyllousIV. China-rose

Answer: (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Explanation:

  • Monoadelphous (stamens united in one bundle) → China-rose

  • Diadelphous (stamens united in two bundles) → Pea

  • Polyadelphous (stamens united in many bundles) → Citrus

  • Epiphyllous (stamens attached to petals) → Lily


Question 46

DNA present in chloroplast is:

Answer: (2) Circular, double stranded

Explanation:

  • Chloroplast DNA is:

    • Circular (not linear)

    • Double-stranded

  • Similar to prokaryotic DNA and mitochondrial DNA

  • This supports the endosymbiotic theory


Question 47

GPP of third trophic level if NPP of first trophic level is 100x:

Answer: (3) 10x (kcal m⁻²) yr⁻¹

Explanation:

  • Only about 10% energy is transferred from one trophic level to next

  • NPP at first trophic level = GPP for second trophic level = 100x

  • NPP at second trophic level = 10% of 100x = 10x = GPP for third trophic level

  • Therefore, GPP of third trophic level = 10x


Question 48

Fused in somatic hybridization:

Answer: (3) Protoplasts

Explanation:

  • Somatic hybridization: Fusion of protoplasts (cells without cell wall) from two different plant varieties/species

  • This produces somatic hybrids

  • Callus: Mass of undifferentiated cells

  • Somatic embryos: Embryos from somatic cells

  • Pollens: Male gametophytes


Question 49

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. Citric acid cycleI. Cytoplasm
B. GlycolysisII. Mitochondrial matrix
C. Electron transport systemIII. Intermembrane space of mitochondria
D. Proton gradientIV. Inner mitochondrial membrane

Answer: (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Explanation:

  • Citric acid cycle → Mitochondrial matrix

  • Glycolysis → Cytoplasm/Cytosol

  • Electron transport system → Inner mitochondrial membrane

  • Proton gradient → Intermembrane space of mitochondria


Question 50

Correct statement about replication in E. coli:

Answer: (4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5’→3′ direction

Explanation:

  • DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5’→3′ direction only

  • It cannot polymerize in 3’→5′ direction

  • The enzyme requires a primer to initiate synthesis

  • DNA-dependent RNA polymerase is involved in transcription, not replication


ZOOLOGY SECTION-A

Question 51

Which is not a steroid hormone?

Answer: (4) Glucagon

Explanation:

  • Glucagon is a proteinaceous/peptide hormone secreted by pancreas (alpha cells)

  • Cortisol: Steroid hormone (adrenal cortex)

  • Testosterone: Steroid hormone (testes)

  • Progesterone: Steroid hormone (ovaries)


Question 52

Statements about hymen:

Answer: (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation:

  • Statement I is correct: Presence or absence of hymen is NOT a reliable indicator of virginity

  • Statement II is false: Hymen can be broken by:

    • Sudden jolt

    • Insertion of vaginal tampon

    • Active participation in sports

    • In some women, hymen persists even after coitus


Question 53

Incorrect statement about bioreactors:

Answer: (3) Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures

Explanation:

  • Bioreactors are used for large volumes (100-1000 litres) of culture

  • Small volumes cannot yield appreciable quantities of products

  • Bioreactors provide optimal growth conditions

  • Most commonly used bioreactors are of stirring type

  • Have agitator system, oxygen delivery system, and foam control system


Question 54

Product of DNA dependent RNA polymerase for given template:

Answer: (1) 5’AUGUACCGUUUUAUGGUUAAGU3′

Explanation:

  • Template: 3’TACATGGCAATATCCATTCAS’

  • mRNA is complementary and antiparallel to template strand

  • RNA polymerase synthesizes mRNA in 5’→3′ direction

  • mRNA sequence: 5’AUGUACCGUUUUAUGGUUAAGU3′

  • Note: In RNA, T is replaced by U


Question 55

Assertion and Reason about FSH:

Answer: (4) A is false but R is true

Explanation:

  • Assertion A is false: FSH acts on ovarian follicles in females, but in males, LH (not FSH) acts on Leydig cells

  • Reason R is true: Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in females; interstitial cells (Leydig) secrete androgens in males

  • LH stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone


Question 56

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. TyphoidI. Fungus
B. LeishmaniasisII. Nematode
C. RingwormIII. Protozoa
D. FilariasisIV. Bacteria

Answer: (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Explanation:

  • Typhoid → Bacteria (Salmonella typhimurium)

  • Leishmaniasis → Protozoa (Leishmania donovani)

  • Ringworm → Fungus (Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton)

  • Filariasis → Nematode (Wuchereria bancrofti/malayi)


Question 57

Correct pathway of conduction of action potential through heart:

Answer: (1) E-C-A-D-B

Explanation:

  • SA node (E) → AV node (C) → AV bundle (A) → Bundle branches (D) → Purkinje fibres (B)

  • SA node: Pacemaker of heart

  • AV node: Delays impulse slightly

  • AV bundle (Bundle of His): Conducts impulse to ventricles

  • Purkinje fibres: Distribute impulse throughout ventricles


Question 58

Match sub-phases of Prophase I:

 
 
List IList II
A. DiakinesisI. Synaptonemal complex formation
B. PachyteneII. Completion of terminalisation of chiasmata
C. ZygoteneIII. Chromosomes look like thin threads
D. LeptoteneIV. Appearance of recombination nodules

Answer: (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Explanation:

  • Diakinesis: Completion of terminalisation of chiasmata

  • Pachytene: Appearance of recombination nodules (crossing over occurs)

  • Zygotene: Synaptonemal complex formation (pairing of homologous chromosomes)

  • Leptotene: Chromosomes look like thin threads (start condensing)


Question 59

Identify correct matching of muscles with location:

Answer: (2) (a) Skeletal – Triceps, (b) Smooth – Stomach, (c) Cardiac – Heart

Explanation:

  • Figure (a): Skeletal muscle (striated, multinucleated) → Triceps/Biceps

  • Figure (b): Smooth muscle (non-striated, spindle-shaped) → Stomach, intestine, blood vessels

  • Figure (c): Cardiac muscle (striated, branched, intercalated discs) → Heart


Question 60

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. Non-medicated IUDI. Multiload 375
B. Copper releasing IUDII. Progestogens
C. Hormone releasing IUDIII. Lippes loop
D. ImplantsIV. LNG-20

Answer: (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Explanation:

  • Non-medicated IUD: Lippes loop

  • Copper releasing IUD: Multiload 375, Cu-T

  • Hormone releasing IUD: LNG-20 (releases levonorgestrel)

  • Implants: Progestogens (e.g., Norplant)


Question 61

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. LipaseI. Peptide bond
B. NucleaseII. Ester bond
C. ProteaseIII. Glycosidic bond
D. AmylaseIV. Phosphodiester bond

Answer: (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Explanation:

  • Lipase: Breaks ester bonds (in lipids)

  • Nuclease: Breaks phosphodiester bonds (in nucleic acids)

  • Protease: Breaks peptide bonds (in proteins)

  • Amylase: Breaks glycosidic bonds (in carbohydrates/starch)


Question 62

Assertion and Reason about breast-feeding:

Answer: (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:

  • Assertion A: Breast-feeding during initial period is recommended for healthy baby

  • Reason R: Colostrum contains antibodies essential for developing resistance

  • Colostrum is rich in IgA antibodies (passive immunity)

  • This protects the newborn from infections

  • R correctly explains A


Question 63

Correct sequence of human evolution (Past to Recent):

Answer: (4) A-D-C-B

Explanation:

  • A. Homo habilis (2.4-1.4 mya) → First tool maker

  • D. Homo erectus (1.9-0.1 mya) → First to use fire, migrate

  • C. Homo neanderthalensis (400,000-40,000 years ago)

  • B. Homo sapiens (300,000 years ago to present)


Question 64

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. AxonemeI. Centriole
B. Cartwheel patternII. Cilia and flagella
C. CristaIII. Chromosome
D. SatelliteIV. Mitochondria

Answer: (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Explanation:

  • Axoneme: Found in cilia and flagella (9+2 arrangement of microtubules)

  • Cartwheel pattern: Seen in centrioles (9 triplets arrangement)

  • Crista: Found in mitochondria (inner membrane folds)

  • Satellite: Present in chromosomes (secondary constriction)


Question 65

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. PterophyllumI. Hag fish
B. MyxineII. Saw fish
C. PristisIII. Angel fish
D. ExocoetusIV. Flying fish

Answer: (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Explanation:

  • Pterophyllum → Angel fish (freshwater fish)

  • Myxine → Hag fish (jawless fish)

  • Pristis → Saw fish (cartilaginous fish)

  • Exocoetus → Flying fish (bony fish)


Question 66

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. α-1 antitrypsinI. Cotton bollworm
B. Cry IAbII. ADA deficiency
C. Cry IAcIII. Emphysema
D. Enzyme replacement therapyIV. Corn borer

Answer: (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Explanation:

  • α-1 antitrypsin → Treatment of emphysema

  • Cry IAb gene → Controls corn borer

  • Cry IAc gene → Controls cotton bollworms

  • Enzyme replacement therapy → Treatment option for ADA deficiency


Question 67

“Ti plasmid” of Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for:

Answer: (3) Tumor inducing plasmid

Explanation:

  • Ti plasmid = Tumor inducing plasmid

  • Contains T-DNA (transfer DNA) which causes tumors in dicot plants

  • Used as a vector in plant genetic engineering

  • Not “tumour inhibiting” or “temperature independent”


Question 68

Match List I with List II:

 
 
List IList II
A. PleurobrachiaI. Mollusca
B. RadulaII. Ctenophora
C. StomochordIII. Osteichthyes
D. Air bladderIV. Hemichordata

Answer: (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Explanation:

  • Pleurobrachia → Phylum Ctenophora (comb jellies)

  • Radula → Phylum Mollusca (rasping feeding organ)

  • Stomochord → Phylum Hemichordata (rudimentary notochord-like structure)

  • Air bladder → Class Osteichthyes (provides buoyancy)


Question 69

Which is not a natural/traditional contraceptive method?

Answer: (4) Vaults

Explanation:

  • Vaults are barrier methods (rubber cap covering cervix)

  • Natural methods include:

    • Coitus interruptus (withdrawal)

    • Periodic abstinence (avoiding coitus during fertile period)

    • Lactational amenorrhea (no ovulation during intense breastfeeding)


Question 70

Correct sequence of stages of cell division:

Answer: (4) E-C-A-D-B

Explanation:

  • E. Gap 1 phase (G₁) → Cell growth

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